## Friday, October 2, 2009

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- Ariel Goldberg
- My name is Ariel Goldberg and I have been a GMAT tutor for eight years. I have taken the GMAT more than twenty times and scored into the 99th percentile; I like to share my GMAT knowledge with everybody. One of the things I like is to write GMAT quant questions that do reflect the changes in the test. The questions sold by some prep services are outdated in that they reflect the GMAT of three or four years ago, before Pearson took over. So that is where I come in, I provide people with good, real-looking GMAT questions.

(2) 4 > w > z > 0, so z < 4, sufficient. We are left with B and D

ReplyDelete(1) 1/w < 1/x < 1/y < 1/z (from the question stem)

1/w + 1/x + 1/y + 1/z < 4/z

1 < 4/z

z < 4

So, (D) is the answer

Yep, answer is D. Statement 2 is the easy one, cross multiply ant that's it.

ReplyDeleteThe other way of looking at 1 is to see that if all your guys are equal to, say, 4 each, then they add up to one, but we are told that z is less than all the other guys, so the other fractions will be less than 1/z, so to allow the other fractions to be more than 1/4, z must be less than 4.

I keep getting B as the correct answer.

ReplyDelete1/w > 1/4, so w < 4.

from original we know w > z > 0, so 3.999 > z > 0, thus Z must be less than 4. What am I missing? Thanks! -Mike

Mike,

ReplyDeletePer question:

w > x > y > z , take the reciprocal(reverse inequality )

1/w < 1/x < 1/y < 1/z

Add all:

1/w + 1/x + 1/y + 1/z now since 1/z is the largest of the 4 terms the sum has to be less than 4/z

or 1/w + 1/x + 1/y + 1/z < 4/z

But Lft side =1 per 1

1 < 4/z

z < 4

2: is straight forward, just cross multiply

w < 4 and z < w , hence z < 4.

D